Here is a philosophical problem vis a vis Free Will:
It is either true or false that:
Every action is the result of some prior cause
If it’s true, then humans aren’t free, since every action was caused by some prior and unrelated cause. For example, although you thought that YOU raised your hand, the fact is that it went up because sounds came out of my mouth (in the form of a question), which then entered your brain, stimulated the right organs, produced the right thoughts, etc….Notice that YOU aren’t part of that chain of events.
If it’s false, then human behavior is arbitrary, since the things we do aren’t ultimately rooted in us. For example, when your hand went up, it went up because of NOTHING; that is, it just went up.
In either case, there is no freedom. We don’t have genuine free will, and as a result, cannot be praised or blamed for any moral action. Mother Teresa wasn’t so good and Hitler wasn’t that bad.
Ric Saenz 
Chris Saenz 
You say that it is false that every action is caused by some prior action. If so, then free will, which is one of the many actions, is not caused by you.
But you say that IN THIS ONE CASE our will does havd some prior cause-you. But why think it true? Why think that in this one case there there is a prior cause? A reason must be offered, otherwise we just have an assertion of a contentious claim.
In the example you gave (raising your hand), wouldn’t it eventually continue to be further and further explained until one would eventually say that YOU caused the series of events that resulted in your hand being raised. For example, if raising one’s hand required 10 actions to be completed before a hand would physically raise up, would step 1 be “Chris CHOSE to raise his hand”, which leads to steps 2-9 resulting in step 10 where the hand is raised?
I suppose that would make it false to say the EVERY action is caused by some prior event. It would then be true to say that every action, except for free will, is caused by some prior event.